
Middle Knowledge
Oct 06, 2008 by Craig Blomberg | 13 Comments
The more I study middle knowledge, the more I like it. No, I don't expect to see the demise of the Calvinist-Arminian debates in my lifetime. But when a position comes along that both centrist Calvinists and centrist Arminians can endorse, that can be supported by proponents of both libertarian and compatibilist free will, we might just be on to something.
OK, OK, cut the fancy terminology and tell us what you are talking about, you're saying! Right. Here goes. Middle knowledge is a proposed solution to predestination vs. free will, to divine sovereignty and human responsibility, going all the way back to the medieval Jesuit priest Molina (so sometimes it's also called Molinism).
Classic Calvinists, properly concerned to safeguard divine sovereignty, have typically rejected any theological system that bases God's predestining activity on the basis merely of his foreknowledge of how humans will respond to the gospel, because they're convinced that makes human free choice the ultimate determiner. Romans 8:29, of course, does base predestination on God's foreknowledge, but the Calvinist typically argues that the Greek prÅginoskÅ ("foreknow") there begins already to shade over into the idea of election because in the Old Testament the Hebrew yÄdÄ‘ ("know") often appears roughly synonymous with "choose." That would explain why Paul doesn't say just that those whom God foreknew he also predestined, which could be seen as tautologous, but "predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son."
Classic Arminians and Wesleyans, properly concerned to safeguard human freedom and accountability, have typically rejected any theological system that bases God's predestining activity on the basis merely of his gratuitous election, because they're convinced that makes human free choice ultimately a chimera. They often point out that prÅginoskÅ is not the same verb as just ginoskÅ (which the LXX uses to translate yÄdÄ‘ and that in Greek it most commonly means simple knowledge in advance. Thus predestination is based on God's foreknowledge.
Middle knowledge argues for both! If open theism in recent years has diminished divine omniscience more than orthodoxy has classically permitted, middle knowledge magnifies or expands God's omniscience beyond what most people have thought about. But it makes good sense: middle knowledge claims that God's perfect, infinite knowledge must be able to know not only what sentient creatures will freely choose in all situations in their lives but what everyone would do in every possible situation that they could confront. Even more magnificently, divine and unlimited knowledge must be able to discern what all possibly created beings would do in all possible situations (or, as philosophers like to say, all possible worlds).
So far so good, I hope. Now here's the rub. Because there will only ever have been a finite number of humans created before God brings this world as we know it to an end, that means there remain countless uncreated beings that he could have chosen to create but didn't. So God's very choice to create you and me and not various other people he could have is an act of his sovereign election utterly prior to our existence. Calvinists should be happy. But it is based on knowing what we will and would do in all actual and all possible situations. Arminians should be happy. Thus, William Lane Craig in The Only Wise God defends this view from a libertarian Arminian perspective; Alvin Plantinga in a chapel talk at Denver Seminary years ago did the same from a libertarian Calvinist perspective, and Terrance Tiessen in Providence and Prayer does so from a compatibilist Calvinist perspective.
Nor is all this some high brow theoretical exercise. It has massive, practical pastoral ramifications. You or some one you care about has just experienced an incredible tragedy. How do we deal with it? Is God still sovereign? Absolutely! Did he know in advance this would happen? Yes. Is Romans 8:28 (just one verse before v. 29--you noticed that, right?) still true that "in all things God works for the good for those who love him" (correctly NIV/TNIV, contra KJV's "all things work together for good. . ."-no, they don't!)? Yes, God is in this situation somewhere bringing good out of it. Did God cause the tragedy? No, he is not the author of evil (James 1:13). Why did he allow it? Because it was part of what was required if he was to create a universe with true human freedom and the freedom to allow the consequences of sin, both directly and indirectly (as in "life in a fallen world") without overruling them except on very rare occasions (which is why we call them miracles when he does).
And both Calvinists and Arminians are right in what they affirm about Romans 8:29 and wrong in what they deny. Both/and wins again!


Comments
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Paul Adams Oct 6, 2008 5:44pm
Amen, Craig! As I recall, you had a soft spot for MK back in the early '90s as well. Paul Helm indicated MK might work if someone could equally demonstrate a "no-risk" view to God's sovereignty. No small task, eh! His treatment in The Providence of God (pp. 55ff) is worthy of consideration as well.
Craig Blomberg Oct 7, 2008 9:50am
You're absolutely right, Paul. I've just grown in my confidence of its viability over the years. Great to hear from you!
Anonymous Oct 14, 2008 5:23pm
It is always great to hear your mediating positions, and now even more so in ways. As we engage in a fellowship of people coming from many different backgrounds but united in a single purpose, it is powerful to be able to affirm one another in beliefs even if we are not able to completely agree. So, here is to MK as a boost to the unity of Christ's body around the world.
-Karl
Derek Resler Oct 15, 2008 7:27pm
Thanks for the blog Dr. Blomberg. I have thought a lot about the merits of MK and I do have a few concerns. If you or any others would like to comment that would be greatly appreciated.
1. Does MK limit God's omniscience by claiming that He knows all potentials instead of knows precisely the future of events? It seems to me that God in His omniscience knows precisely the course of events so why would He choose to know events that do not ever occur?
2. How does the elucidation of God's unconditional will fall into this theological premise?
Thanks Dr. Blomberg and others who contribute - more people are impacted by your hearts and passions for the Truth!
Simon Johnson Oct 22, 2008 5:27pm
Dr. Blomberg,
Thanks for a great introduction to this issue. I have a question about this statement of yours: "But it [God's choice] is based on knowing what we will and would do in all actual and all possible situations." Isn't the idea of God doing anything "based on" that is, "because of" or "conditioned by" a creature (let alone a not-yet-existent creature) problematic? It seems to be in conflict with Aseity, Impassibility, and even Sovereignty. Saying "God did X because of (meaning 'in reaction to' as opposed to 'for the sake of') me" seems a bit bold and not in line with the biblical spirit of the creature Creator relation. How do you deal with this facet of MK? Thanks!
Craig Blomberg Oct 23, 2008 8:53am
Thanks Simon and Peter!
To Simon's questions: 1) No, MK affirms God's comprehensive foreknowledge of both all actual and all possible future events. 2) As far as I can tell exactly the way it would otherwise. There are some things that God simply ordains without taking his foreknowledge into account, but they tend to be the exception rather than the rule (though I suppose one could argue on anyone's system whether separating choice and foreknowledge is even logically possible, but the point would still be that MK doesn't require a shift in one's system on this issue.
To Peter's question (and follow up e-mail): It appears that only your name didn't make it into the post. So I'll paste my earlier response to you here for the benefit of other readers: Of course, you’ve put your finger on the classic Calvinist objection to any alternatives to thoroughgoing Calvinism. And the classic Arminian objection to the classic Calvinist position is to say that if God does not base his choice on anything having anything to do with the creatures he is choosing then it is random, arbitrary and deterministic. So there have always been some theologians who have tried to get beyond that impasse. As an evangelical, in general, I am more persuaded by arguments from actual texts of Scripture then from the apparent logic of entailments. While never wanting to endorse something that can be demonstrated to be logically contradictory, I am impressed that both libertarians and compatibilitsts agree that there are ways to simultaneously affirm God’s sovereignty and human freedom without such necessary contradictions, even if our finite and fallen minds cannot comprehensively show how the two mesh. So now I return to Scripture and to a text like Romans 8:29, where predestination is indeed based on foreknowledge. My word studies fail to convince me that to foreknow (proginosko) with any consistency means to choose as to know (ginosko, esp. when translating the Heb. yada) often does. But I take the Calvinist objection to standard Arminianism that choice based on mere antecedent knowledge does put the cart before the horse. But if God’s omniscience is comprehensive enough to include all possible as well as all actual foreknowledge and if, and I see no way for even the most ardent Arminian to deny it, the very act of God creating is a form of election, then perhaps we have made some progress. But I recognize all the reasons why both “ends†of the spectrum find it too much a fence-sitting position. Maybe I place too much value in the syndrome of “if I’m shot at equally from both sides maybe I’m on to somethingâ€! :)
Kristi Nordaas Nov 18, 2008 10:00am
Could you direct me to the basis for this claim in your blog: "Why did he allow it? Because it was part of what was required if he was to create a universe with true human freedom and the freedom to allow the consequences of sin, both directly and indirectly (as in "life in a fallen world") without overruling them except on very rare occasions..."
Craig Blomberg Nov 18, 2008 2:25pm
Hi, Kristi, and thanks for your question. If by basis, you mean a specific Bible verse, I can't give you one. But as Christians have wrestled over the centuries with the problem of evil, they have observed that beginning with the first act of rebellion in the Garden of Eden, the Bible describes countless situations in which humans have the freedom to disobey God's commands. And miracles seem so remarkable not just because they appear to transgress natural laws of cause and effect but because they are so rare. So it has seemed plausible to many thinkers that God so valued the love relationship he wanted to have with humanity, as reflected in the central principles in Scripture of loving God and neighbor that he realized for it to be a love worth anything it could not be coerced but would have to be freely given.
Paul Brown Dec 12, 2008 6:50am
Thanks for this introduction to the middle way of middle knowledge. How does this view relate with doctrines like total depravity? If we take the Calvinist view on total depravity (which I do), then God's knowledge of all people would include the same two possibilities: without an effectual call, this person will not believe in Christ; with an effectual call, this person will believe in Christ. That is, if our nature is fallen in such a way that we are fundamentally opposed to God, by nature objects of his wrath, and unable to choose to exercise faith, then the decisive issue when God looks at the possible future outcomes is in fact his own action. Or to put it another way, there are not two types of people: those who by nature would eventually believe and those who wouldn't. All of us, by nature, would never choose God apart from his work to make us alive in Christ when we were dead. Does that make sense?
Craig Blomberg Dec 12, 2008 10:43am
I would assume the answer would be to stress, with Calvin (though many of his followers pushed things further than he did), that total depravity means that every area of life is corrupted by sin, not that we have absolutely no role to play in responding to God's grace freely offered to us. We may all need the Spirit's "wooing" or "drawing" us (as in John 12:32) but I know of no Scriptures that say things quite as strongly as you, and some of Calvin's followers, phrase things.
Paul Brown Dec 12, 2008 4:22pm
Dr. Blomberg, thanks for the comments. I guess I disagree with this weakened view of total depravity. The fallen will doesn't just need a little wooing toward God but a Total Heart Makeover. (Wouldn't that be a nice reality t.v. show?) Far be it from me to correct your interpretation of Calvin, but where he deals with this subject in his Institutes (Book II, Chapters 1-3), he says things like the following:
Our nature is not only utterly devoid of goodness, but so prolific in all kinds of evil, that it can never be idle. (II.1.8)
The whole man, from the crown of the head to the sole of the foot, is so deluged, as it were, that no part remains exempt from sin, and, therefore, everything which proceeds from him is imputed as sin. Thus Paul says, that all carnal thoughts and affections are enmity against God, and consequently death (Rom. 8:7). (II.1.9)
It will be beyond dispute, that free will does not enable any man to perform good works, unless he is assisted by grace; indeed, the special grace which the elect alone receive through regeneration. (II.2.6)
The will, because inseparable from the nature of man, did not perish, but was so enslaved by depraved lusts as to be incapable of one righteous desire. (II.2.12)
The flesh has no capacity for such sublime wisdom as to apprehend God, and the things of God, unless illumined by His Spirit. (II.2.19)
When the will is enchained as the slave of sin, it cannot make a movement towards goodness, far less steadily pursue it. Every such movement is the first step in that conversion to God, which in Scripture is entirely ascribed to divine grace. (II.3.5)
Lest any one should cavil that the good work thus begun by the Lord consists in aiding the will, which is in itself weak, the Spirit elsewhere declares what the will, when left to itself, is able to do. His words are, "A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh. And I will put my Spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them," (Ezek. 36:26, 27). How can it be said that the weakness of the human will is aided so as to enable it to aspire effectually to the choice of good, when the fact is, that it must be wholly transformed and renovated? If there is any softness in a stone; if you can make it tender, and flexible into any shape, then it may be said, that the human heart may be shaped for rectitude, provided that which is imperfect in it is supplemented by divine grace. But if the Spirit, by the above similitude, meant to show that no good can ever be extracted from our heart until it is made altogether new, let us not attempt to share with Him what He claims for himself alone. (II.3.6)
The beginning of right will and action being of faith, we must see whence faith itself is. But since Scripture proclaims throughout that it is the free gift of God, it follows, that when men, who are with their whole soul naturally prone to evil, begin to have a good will, it is owing to mere grace. (II.3.8)
(From the translation of Henry Beveridge, accessed at http://www.ccel.org/ccel/calvin/institutes.i.html)
All that to show why I don't think I'm going further than Calvin did in asserting that total depravity entails mankind's total inability to pursue God apart from God's regenerating work. Once God changes our hearts, then we are able to respond with repentance and faith. I'm certainly not saying that we have no part, only that our part follows as a necessary consequence to God's action.
Anyway, you have probably already heard all this before. Thanks for bearing with me as I process the idea.
Steve Perry Jun 1, 2009 12:35am
Hey Dr. Blomberg,
Great to see this blog on here. I am a big fan of the middle knowledge position. One issue I see here and is picked up by some posters is that middle knowledge allows for multiple possible worlds to obtain in the future. This mitigates against a discrete singular determined sequence of events that is held by many Calvinists. Middle knowledge indicates God allows a multiplicity of outcomes on certain decisions ie. what I eat for breakfast for example but not all decisions ie. sending His Son as a propitiatory sacrifice for sin. this separation of decretive/permissive will isn't shared by the most ardent five-point Calvinists. God is the effective cause of all events in that particular system and His will is not frustrated. Thus, there isn't any possible worlds to obtain other than the one God ordains. I think this is problematic when we consider the problem of evil and thus why I think middle knowledge provides the mediating way for us to understand God's outworking of His redemptive plans within a fallen world. Often it is mistakenly held, in my opinion, that potential knowledge is somehow less sovereign than actualized knowledge. I think this need not be the case as God is always aware of what is obtaining in reality and proactively weaving His will in the midst of free causal agents. It simply acknowledges the dynamic nature of God's interaction with our world and one I find more Biblical than the deterministic ones sometimes posited.
Steve Perry
William Ross Jul 13, 2010 3:36pm
God doesn't know the future. He only knows what he has committed to do. He can't read your mind or know what you will do except to the degree that he is acquainted with you. God is as personally aware of most people as Obama is. He depends on his messengers to bring him news. If he needs to verify something, he has to come down personally from the sky.
Omniscience is a Platonic concept, not a scriptural one.