
Wives, Women or Deaconesses?
Jul 18, 2011 by Craig Blomberg | 8 Comments
“In the same way, the women are to be worthy of respect, not malicious talkers but temperate and trustworthy in everything” (1 Timothy 3:11, updated NIV).
Unfortunately, many Bible readers today form opinions about the merits of various translations based on hearsay rather than firsthand examination of the text of Scripture, even if that hearsay is quite mistaken or slanted in what it claims. Sometimes people just accept the opinion of a trusted authority in their lives. Maybe they base their decision solely on the rendering of a single verse, or collection of verses on the same topic or involving the same issue. Some people stress very literal renderings at the expense of clarity of meaning, or freshness of style at the expense of faithfulness to the original languages.
Having read large swaths of many of the major English translations of the Bible and having been involved in the production of four of the major recent translations (ESV, HCSB, NLT and updated NIV), I am convinced that the updated NIV achieves the best combination of accuracy and clarity of meaning most frequently. Each translation has its appropriate niche, but the NIV seems to serve best the broadest cross-section of purposes and audiences. This is the third in a series of blogs, appearing more frequently than in the past, which looks at a diverse collection of texts and topics that I believe support my conviction.
It’s interesting to analyze translations that advertise themselves today as “essentially literal.” The adverb clearly allows for the occasional deviation from fully literal, presumably for good reason, but in reality it’s very hard to predict when these deviations will occur, and often they seem to be driven by a theological rather than a linguistic agenda. Consider 1 Timothy 3:11, for example. Tucked into the middle of a discussion of diakonoi (usually translated “deacons” but theoretically just “servants”) is a verse that begins, gunaikas hosautōs. There is no debate among scholars as to the literal meaning of these two words; they mean “women likewise” The debate is over their interpretation. Some think the women refer to deacon’s wives; others, to women deacons.
To be true to its mandate, then, any even reasonably literal translation in English should use the word “women.” This forecloses on no interpretive options. Readers may interpret these women to be whoever they think fits best in this context and with Paul’s and Scripture’s teaching elsewhere.
The Latin Vulgate, the official Catholic Bible for a millennium, like the two most widely used contemporary English Catholic translations, the New American Bible and the New Jerusalem Bible, use “women” (or the Latin equivalent). The King James Era standard Spanish and French translations both used the words in those language that meant “women” rather than those that swung the pendulum exclusively in one of the two main interpretive directions. Although the KJV used “wives,” the ASV (1901) that updated the KJV changed it to “women.” The NASB, an update of the ASV, preserved “women.” The RSV preserved “women” as did the NRSV. But the ESV, also a revision of the RSV, reverted to the biased rendering “wives” and gratuitously added “their” to modify it, to which nothing in the Greek corresponds. The original NIV had already done this, though it did acknowledge “deaconesses” in a footnote as an alternative. The more recent NET and HCSB also revert to “wives.”
The TNIV arguably swung the pendulum a tiny bit too far by rendering “women” but then putting in a footnote, “probably women who are deacons, or possibly deacons’ wives.” In fact, scholarship overwhelmingly supports the likelihood of “women who are deacons” but, in the volatile evangelical audience of the family of NIV translations, to skew the balance in favor of women deacons over deacons’ wives was probably ill-advised. The updated NIV gets it right—put “women” in the text, with the footnote, “possibly deacons’ wives or women who are deacons,” without indicating a preference one way or the other. The ESV on the other hand, makes no allowance for deaconesses or women deacons, even in their footnote, noting only the options of leaving out “their” before “wives,” and of substituting “women” for “wives.” This is not being essentially literal!
How can God’s people submit themselves to an inerrant Bible that should wield authority over them when translators introduce speculative interpretations for them in an imbalanced way without ever acknowledging that that is what they are doing? How can denominations or churches ever correct their ecclesiology if those who create translations for them change the text of Scripture to fit errant practice by those denominations and then turn around and censure translations that don’t, as the Southern Baptists have recently done with the updated NIV? Al Mohler, president of Southern Seminary in a 2002 news article, was shockingly quoted as exulting over the HCSB, “we will have a major translation we can control” (http://www.bpnews.net/bpnews.asp?id=13580, accessed July 17, 2011). Stay as far away as possible from anyone who thinks that is appropriate behavior. The Vatican ultimately controls the Catholic Bibles. Crossway Publishers control the ESV. Zondervan and Biblica, however, have no control over the Committee on Bible Translation that produces successive editions of the NIV; that committee is an independent entity. The Bible must always be allowed to control Christians; Christians, however well-intentioned, must never try to control the Bible!


Comments
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Ann Farley-Rolle Jul 18, 2011 4:31pm
Hi, Craig! I appreciate your thoughts, your continuing scholarship (to the benefit of all of us who've studied Greek with you)! My only question to you would be this. Why do you call the choice to favor "woman deacons" over "deacons' wives" in the TNIV footnote "ill-advised" rather than a truthful (& gutsy) rendering, simply because of "the volatile evangelical audience." Translators should have the courage not to be beholden to the volatility of others' agendas, particularly in regard to just treatment of others. Thanks for writing & thinking! Ann
Craig Blomberg Jul 19, 2011 7:54pm
I suppose no one could have known what 20-20 hindsight shows. For all its advantages, the TNIV never caught on with enough people for Zondervan and Biblica to keep publishing it. In a market-driven world, alas, the best publication ever on any topic can't have its desired effect if it can't stay in print.
Paul Adams Jul 20, 2011 6:43am
Craig: I cannot imagine a more well-balanced post. Thanks so very much for shedding some light on so much heat. On a similar note, see Rod Decker's post http://ntresources.com/blog/?p=1219.
Barry Applewhite Jul 26, 2011 2:55pm
It is such a relief to hear someone say these things! The translations that foreclose interpretive options without even so much as a note just drive me crazy.
I wish you would take time to analyze the updated NIV's treatment of 1 Peter 3:17. Their translation is like most others, but it is a mystery to me how you get that from the Greek text. It appears that all the translators think an idiom is in play, but after reading about three dozen commentaries and several Greek grammars, I cannot find anyone who identifies what the idiom is.
In 1 Peter 3:17, updated NIV seems no worse than anyone else, but does it accurately represent the underlying Greek text?
-Barry
Craig Blomberg Jul 27, 2011 2:14pm
Not sure which part is puzzling you, Barry, but I'll give it a shot. This passage is unchanged from the 1984 NIV. As is often the case in elliptical sentences, one has to supply a form of eimi (to be), in this case "it is". Kreitton means "better". Gar is the postpositive "for" Now I pick up the complementary infinitive paschein ("to suffer"). Thus far I have "for it is better to suffer. . ." Then I observe the pair of parallel adverbial participles separated by an e ("than"). Probably they are causal: "because of good-doing, (rather) than bad-doing." In English "for" communicates the same thing as "because". So now I have "For it is better to suffer for doing good than for doing bad." I finally have an embedded conditional clause, "if the will of God might perhaps will" (overtranslating the optative a bit). But no one in English would say redundantly, if the will of God wills, we'd just say if God wills, if it's God will, or some equivalent. Insert that subordinate clause in the sentence where it flows well, and you wind up with the NIV on this passage. But no real idioms anywhere.
Barry Applewhite Jul 27, 2011 4:11pm
Dr. Blomberg, I am grateful for your reply and analysis. Now I can quit looking for an idiom!
Let's focus on the embedded conditional clause, "if the will of God might perhaps will." This is what puzzles me the most. That is a very convoluted way to say "if God might will" in Greek. The Greek phrase never recurs in the NT, and the presence of the optative is also rare. I cannot understand why any author would take that route to reach that alleged destination.
With that in mind, I searched for any other verses that contain both the verb thelo and the noun thelema. John 7:17 is the only one. These verses have a lot of grammatical similarities. The key part of John 7:17 says, "If anyone is willing to do his will..."
I noted that to thelema is neuter, so it could serve as either the subject or object in 1 Peter 3:17. Another possibility is that to thelema could be an adverbial accusative rather than the subject.
After all these steps, I tried this translation: "For, if one is willing to suffer in keeping with God's will, it is better for doing good than for doing evil." The optative mood is now seen as necessary to express the uncertainty as to whether the believer will make a godly choice or not.
I figure I'm stuck with the mystery of the convoluted wording because if my theory were possible, someone like you would have thought of it before! Thanks for your comments and your great blog.
-Barry
Craig Blomberg Aug 1, 2011 2:08pm
It would be a very odd use of the adverbial accusative, since most are time, and the next most common are manner. I suppose it could be a very general adverbial accusative of reference but the probability of that construction as over against to thelema being a simple subject is quite small. Redundant repetition in Greek almost always denotes emphasis. The use of the rare optative (for koine) already suggests something unusual is going on. If this is just before the Neronic persecution, Peter can still say that it is not highly probable people will suffer for doing good, esp. compared to the likelihood of suffering for doing bad. But if they do, through no fault of their own, then it must surely be God's very deliberate will. Mark Dubis in his handbook on the Greek text of 1 Peter (Baylor, 2010), p. 115, citing Bigg's old ICC volume, writes, "Literally, 'if the will of God should will.' Bigg (159) describes this as an 'emphatic pleonasm.' This is also a metonymy in which God's will stands for God himself."
Barry Applewhite Aug 1, 2011 8:04pm
Thank you, Dr. Blomberg, for your generosity in both time and research. My mind is now settled at long last, and you have a true fan.
-Barry